I would imagine this question would've been asked already but i'm going to anyway.
I've listened to Steve's live shows and my ears tell me the whammy signal is pre-amp not post preamp(loop). Trialing with my own setup I find the whammy is way too defined in the loop which works nice for harmony's etc but not the hardcore +2 octave or octave whammy or even the 4/5 setting. It just doesn't sound the same.
But seeing Thomas Nordegg's mention that
Does this actually mean that the whammy is in the fx loop e.g preamp send -> whammy -> other stuff -> preamp return??"the whammy is in the loop too by the way"
I mean I could understand if the whammy is in "a" loop of some sort allowing a pre/post preamp option.
Reason for this is that it just doesn't sound like its in the amps loop. Its too clean. I just thought i'd throw this out there. Does anyone have any proof that its actually configured that way?
Considerations:
This is slightly off topic but you should kind of get the point. When I was younger I absolutely hated the sound of a wah wah (what ever brand. Mine are cry baby and bad horsie) Post distortion/overdrive. It sounded horribly over wah'd to the point where there was no definition. It was'nt until I learnt that I sounded a lot better with far less gain and more tube volume. Then deciding to take the wah and place it post OD/DS again, It sounded very very nice indeed. More Wah to a broader band of frequencies and alot cleaner. Obviously Pre OD/DS the wah sounds nice anyway, but post... Killer.
So I dunno? Is it possible that the preamp could be set to a very low gain whilst the whammy is in the amp loop (if thats the case)
Now please no flaming. Thanks for your time